I don't understand your answer. He asked a simple question: Given the chart, what was the advantage he played with? The answer, %W/L, in the bottom left, is 0.91%. Why give such a complicated response to such a simple question? Why over-complicate things unnecessarily?

Nor does your answer address how one arrives at 0.91%, if the OP really wants to know the details. That answer is to multiply, row by row, each count frequency by the advantage (Win/Loss) of that count by the size of the bet for that count, and sum vertically all of those products.

Don