> I may have misinterpreted this but surely
> you could not have a 50% situation as
> 'hitting' is superior to 'standing'.
> In other words, after just 1 hand would be
> the closest that 'standing' comes to 50%
> chance of winning and this would get smaller
> as the number of trials increased.
> P(Hitting Wins Overall)>50%>P(Standing
> Wins Overall)
> Is this not correct ?

You're right. This is not the appropiate example.

Sincerely,
Cacarulo