gajirikun: don, how do you play these promotional chips?

[gajirikun]

dear don and fellow players.

your corrections and suggestions are greatly appreciated.

promotion "A"

you receive $100 worth of promotional chips for your first $1000 buy in.
but you can only use these chips to pay off your banker win commission(5%).

i believe you win $1.24 for every $100 you bet on banker?
but mow much should you bet on banker for each hand in this situation?
if necessary,to buy in more cash chips is no problem even though you will not get any more extra promotional chips.

promotion "B"

one $100 worth of promotional chip is given for $1000 buy in.(you can bet it on banker or player.)
this promotional chip is exchanged with $100 cash chip when you win.(you would only want to bet on banker, i believe.)
you will get to retain the chip if it is tie.
how much is this chip really worth?

thank you for your expertise.

regards,

gajirikun

[David Spence]

The following article by James Grosjean addresses your questions pretty directly, especially those regarding Promotion B: http://www.beyondcounting.com/pdfs/b...ouponsbjfo.pdf

Plagiarizing from that source, you should bet your $100 chip from Promotion B on PLAYER, which gives an expected return of $49.32, as opposed to $48.15 for the Banker bet. This assumes that you can't combine Promotions A and B. If you can combine them, bet your $100 promotional chip from B on Banker and use Promotion A to pay the commission if you win.

Which brings us to Promotion A. Essentially, you get to make commission-free bets on Banker until your "gambler's win" (that is, the total of all your wins, without subtracting any of your losses--degenerate gamblers seem to report their "winnings" this way :-) ) on Banker reaches $2000. You should stop the moment your gambler's win reaches $2000, since at that point, you're playing with the usual disadvantage.

Before you reach that point, however, the question is, how much should you bet per hand if you have an edge of 1.235%? This is a function of bankroll, risk tolerance, and the value you place on your time, so it's hard to answer without more information. However, given that you generally want to minimize variance when you have an edge, I would lean towards more, smaller bets until your gambler's win reaches $2000 and your promotional money is exhausted. Your figure of $1.24 for every $100 bet is correct, so you could use that to help determine the lowest bet you're willing to make that will still give you an acceptable hourly wage. Also, when you near the end of your promotional chips, don't make a bet such that, if you win, you would have to pay some of the commission using your own, non-promotional chips.

David

> dear don and fellow players.

> your corrections and suggestions are greatly
> appreciated.

> promotion "A"

> you receive $100 worth of promotional chips for your
> first $1000 buy in.
> but you can only use these chips to pay off your
> banker win commission(5%).

> i believe you win $1.24 for every $100 you bet on
> banker?
> but mow much should you bet on banker for each hand in
> this situation?
> if necessary,to buy in more cash chips is no problem
> even though you will not get any more extra
> promotional chips.

> promotion "B"

> one $100 worth of promotional chip is given for $1000
> buy in.(you can bet it on banker or player.)
> this promotional chip is exchanged with $100 cash chip
> when you win.(you would only want to bet on banker, i
> believe.)
> you will get to retain the chip if it is tie.
> how much is this chip really worth?

> thank you for your expertise.

> regards,

> gajirikun