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Trapper: Confused
Thanks Don. This isn't my strong point but I am trying to learn. Maybe you can show me where I went wrong.
> You're speaking at cross-purposes. Kat didn't say that
> the frequencies of the true counts were different
> (why would they be??);
They wouldn't.
> ..... she said that the frequencies
> of the counts with advantages would be different.
Can the "frequency of counts with advantages" be derived by summing the count frequencies for each count with a positive IBA in the tables from CVCX (or BJA3). I get 27.3% for both sample games in my previous post by using that method. Is there another calculation?
> Clearly, you get the edge earlier in the H17 LS game;
> therefore, you play more counts with an edge at that
> game than with the S17 game.
> Clear?
The above is clear but I am finding it hard to square with the post from Katarina that I was responding to.
From Katarina's post:
> If we have a 6-deck S17 player (HE 0.40%) and a 6-deck
> H17 LS player (HE 0.55%), the percentage of playable
> hands (i.e. hands with advantage > 0) is going to
> be greater for the S17 player than the H17 LS player,
> even though the H17 LS game has a higher SCORE.
How can the H17 player "play more counts with an edge" and have a lesser percentage of hands with an advantage > 0? I would be interested in knowing what I am missing here.
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