What is a bet ramp?

[MJ1]

Can someone please define this term? How is it different than bet spread?

Thanks,
MJ

[Dog Hand]

MJ,

The bet spread just gives the min and max bets, whether in units or dollars. In units, generally the higher number comes first (a 6:1 spread), while in dollars generally the lower value comes first (a $25 to $150 spread).

The bet ramp specifies how much is bet at each count: e.g. bet $25 at 0 & below, $50 at +1, $75 at +2, $100 at +3, and $150 at +4 & higher.

Hope this helps!

Dog Hand

[Freightman]

The bet ramp specifies how much is bet at each count: e.g. bet $25 at 0 & below, $50 at +1, $75 at +2, $100 at +3, and $150 at +4 & higher.

Define House edge. If .5 advantage at +1 is $50 then house edge at 2 with double the advantage should be $100 and +3 which is 50% greater advantage over +2 should be $150 - so Kelly suggests

[MJ1]

Thanks Dog Hand!

[G Man]

Define House edge. If .5 advantage at +1 is $50 then house edge at 2 with double the advantage should be $100 and +3 which is 50% greater advantage over +2 should be $150 - so Kelly suggests

Not really. A bet at +1 can have an advantage that is slim when flooring or truncating because +1 incorporate all counts from 0.1 and 1.0, so when playing your +2 counts, the advantage is more than double the advantage at +1 cause in get counts from 1.1 to 2.0 which gives (usually) a much better advantage.

[Dog Hand]

Freightman and G Man,

I was NOT suggesting a bet ramp: I was merely illustrating what a bet ramp is.

Dog Hand

[Marta1988]

I would be very interested in knowing more too. What is the difference between a betting ramp and a betting spread? I read something about it on stake bonus code and maybe I understand better

[DSchles]

If your smallest bet is, say, $25 and your largest bet, which you make at a true count of, say, +5 is $400, then you have a 1-16 bet SPREAD. But what bets do you make in between, at TCs of +1, +2, +3, and +4? The entirety of all the bets at all the true counts constitutes your bet RAMP--in other words, the path you take to get from $25 to $400.

See Dog Hand's original answer, above.

Clear?

Don

[moo321]

With blackjack, you can't just do Kelly betting based on the advantage at a given count. Because you aren't just playing that one hand. You need to take into account the frequency of those counts, and the money you're losing on the negative counts. That's why it's best to sim the whole game, then apply Kelly to your entire bet ramp.

[DSchles]

There's a lot of misunderstanding about this, including some of what you've written above. Let me see if I can clarify.

First, you stipulate your bankroll for playing the game. You say, for example, I have $10,000. Next, you stipulate a bet ramp, which is to say, you decide what multiple of your starting bet your top bet will be. Examples: 1-6, 1-12, 1-16, etc. The math for optimal betting then determines what those min and max bets should be. That's the very hard part! The calculations for all the intermediate bets--those that aren't either the min or the max--are straightforward (bankroll x EV)/variance. Period. The frequencies of the TCs at which those bets are made have nothing whatsoever to do with the calculation of the Kelly wagers. They obviously do pertain to the calculation of the SCORE, but that isn't what we're discussing here.

Hope this helps everyone better understand the concepts.

Don