Quote Originally Posted by 21forme View Post
Suppose I'm playing 2 hands and want to have $200 total out at a specific count. What is the difference in ROR if I split the hands $100 each vs. putting $50 on one and $150 on the other?
TIA
The latter has greater ROR because the overall variance is greater. If you have a certain sum to bet over two hands, the total variance for the two hands will always be the smallest if the two sums are equal. As soon as they are unequal, the variance increases. And since the total dollar amount is the same, which means the e.v. is the same, the ROR is greater if the variance is greater.

As to how much greater the variance and ROR become for unequal hands, the formula is a bit complicated, but I have it if you really need it. Suffice it to say that, the more there is on a single hand, the greater the variance. Clearly, if you have $199 on one hand a $1 on the other, that's going to create the biggest variance for the $200 total.

Don