I may be getting my books confused. When doing calculations I used your book in conjunction with Griffins TToBJ. You know what is in your book. The most frustrating one was when I was doing side count adjustment calculations. I haven't found the exact pages I used in either book yet but if you have some useful examples for calculating side count adjustments that would be one example. They may all be in Griffin's book. It looks like Grifffin's book pages 244-5 has information that I would use but I remember making notes on the pages I was mainly using and there are none there. I ended up getting a set of known side count adjustments and figuring out what way of using the examples and expanding them to a level 2 count would get the same adjustments. If I find where these were in either book I will let you know. Looking at Griffin's book, it has a lot more examples of using formulas and they are all level 1 examples. I may be thinking of his book. Sorry but I used them together when doing research. I thought I used your book as the primary reference, which is why I assumed it was in your book.
Hi
I've noticed this effect a lot. I re-read Chapter 6 "The Floating Advantage" and found it fascinating, as usual. Unless I'm missing it, I can't see a discussion of WHY this happens.
Also, did you compare the per-hand expectations from only the first 1/4 deck of the shoe to the PHE for the last 1/4 deck? If so, would it show a bigger difference than comparing the entire shoe to the last 1/4 deck? That might, at least, show that I'm not crazy for noticing that the 0-3 positive TCs work out better at the end.
Thanks!
SiMi
Last edited by SiMi; 03-24-2018 at 07:18 AM. Reason: left out question mark
An excellent question. Sorry, just getting up, so short answer - good observation, especially at true 0. Further answer - you're definitely not crazy.
Just to clarify, fliating advantage rears its lovely head in deeply dealt shoes - towards the end. Also, Don stated in a recent post, that advantage gained per true count increases in the latter parts of a shoe.
Hi, FM
Thanks for the sanity check! Yep, that's exactly what I've been observing. The OP suggests (perhaps) that one adopt a two-tier bet ramp. The first tier is used early on and it is less aggressive, more toward flat. The 2nd tier kicks in if you have a deeply dealt shoe for some reason and the TC begins to eke its way up from 0. The PHE Don shows in chapter 6 is very interesting because the effect at TC = 0 to +3 seems to be much bigger than the effect at TC = +3 to +>=5. Again, this is what I've been seeing for years.
Thanks for your feedback!
SiMi
Hi, FM
Ok, thanks, I didn't realize the term "2 tiered ramp" was already taken. Can you share an example of what a 2 tier ramp is like?
Also, is there a more concise term for "increasing an existing ramp as you go deeper in the shoe?" (IAERAYGDITS)
Also, I don't see how to sim IAERAYGDITS in Norm's software. Are you aware of a way to do this?
Have a great weekend!
SiMi
Thanks for the offer but that's ok. I don't know anyone here. I'll take a look at Dynamic Blackjack for more.
I was thinking that you couldn't sim the first 1/4 deck of a 6 deck shoe because TC would never reach +3, let alone higher.
But you could sim the first 1 deck vs. the last deck in 5/6 dealt shoe.
I wrote a BJ sim a few years ago that I can modify to do a sim and shuffle after 1 deck is dealt and record the results and then compare that to another sim where I only gather stats in the last deck dealt for each shoe.
It would be interesting to see what the overall edge is for various TCs in the first deck vs. the last deck like this.
Take care,
SiMi
Bookmarks