Let's say you had a 50K bank, you used an optimal ramp, and you employed no cover with a 0.1% ROR--with one important exception. If you lost a hand where you had the advantage, the following hand where you calculated you also had any advantage, you doubled your previous advantaged bet--unless the optimal bet called for more than doubling your previous advantage bet, in which case you would use the optimal bet (i.e. Martingale).
My question is, how would this effect your ROR and hourly? Sounds like a job for Dog Hand.
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