There is a discussion brewing elsewhere on the Floating Advantage. I have read BJA2 and skimmed the lenghty discussion here from two years ago.
But I still have a question.
I went to Blackjackinfo.com and using the strategy engine derived the following house edge numbers using these rules -DOA, DAS, NS -
6D .. 0.44%
5D .. 0.41%
4D .. 0.38%
3D .. 0.30%
2D .. 0.20%
Why would this not be descriptive of the FA built into a 6D shoe as it was being played down?
Thanks.
> Why would this not be descriptive of the FA
> built into a 6D shoe as it was being played
> down?
The edges that you generated are for basic strategy, off the top of the various packs you studied. As such, they don't pertain to counters. There is no FA for basic strategy players.
In essence, if you don't have a count to begin with, you aren't able to state that that same count is worth progressively more as the pack is depleted.
And no, you may NOT assume that, for basic strategy, the count is always zero. That is a common misconception and simply isn't true.
Don
I've wondered if unbalanced counts work as well as they do because of the floating advantage. In an unbalanced count, as we get deeper in the deck, the count is artificially high (compared to a balanced count). Does the floating advantage help compensate for this "innacuracy"?
> I've wondered if unbalanced counts work as
> well as they do because of the floating
> advantage. In an unbalanced count, as we get
> deeper in the deck, the count is
> artificially high (compared to a balanced
> count). Does the floating advantage help
> compensate for this "innacuracy"?
No, not enough to matter. For the games dealt as they are today, with relatively poor pen at shoe games, FA has very little impact.
Don
any of the cards are dealt. If you have a six deck game with TC=0 with 2 decks left does this not have the same BSE as a fresh two deck game.
Likewise, would not a 2 deck game with 1 deck remaining and S17 DAS rules yeild the player a 0.13% advantage over the casino when TC = 0. (same edge as a freshly shuffled single deck with the same rules).
Further, what would the BS player edge be for an S17 DAS game dealt from a 26 card deck consisting of only spades and clubs. Would this off the top BSE not be the same as a 52 card deck with 26 cards dealt and TC = 0?
Thank you
> any of the cards are dealt. If you have a
> six deck game with TC=0 with 2 decks left
> does this not have the same BSE as a fresh
> two deck game.
> Likewise, would not a 2 deck game with 1
> deck remaining and S17 DAS rules yeild the
> player a 0.13% advantage over the casino
> when TC = 0. (same edge as a freshly
> shuffled single deck with the same rules).
> Further, what would the BS player edge be
> for an S17 DAS game dealt from a 26 card
> deck consisting of only spades and clubs.
> Would this off the top BSE not be the same
> as a 52 card deck with 26 cards dealt and TC
> = 0?
The answers to all of your questions are "almost." The floating advantage makes it such that, the deeper you go, the more a TC of zero is worth. It's also true that the value of that TC is approximately the same as if you had shuffled a brand-new pack with whatever number of decks remain from the larger, initial pack. But, there's really no reason why the edges would be mathematically identical, since the initial BSE of, say, a two-deck game depends of having four of each rank, while a TC of zero, with two decks remaining from, say, six, could be achieved in myriad other ways.
Don
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