If I spread from one hand of $10 to one hand of $100, or two hands of $75, is my bet spread 1:10 or 1:15?
Mathematically, neither one. It's surely more than 1:10; after all, you are betting $150. But, it's not the same as betting one hand of $150, because you're using 50% more cards (with the dealer, three hands instead of two). In other words, a true 1: 15 spread of one hand of $10 to one hand of $150 would be better.Originally Posted by Mr. Ed
If you're asking how the pit bosses might be rating you, I don't think the answer would be uniform. Some might consider only the total of $150 on the table, while others might be more or less blind to the two hands and see only a "top bet" of $75. And since those two hands would be all green chips, they might not see you as the black-chip player that you might be considered if you had bet a black and two greens on one hand.
Don
Or should I just say 1:2x7.5?
I am just looking for an abbreviation to describe my play. Like we say, “AP” instead of “advantage player”.
By the way, a dealer friend of mine affirmed the green chip / black chip bias. She had to call out “black action” when a black chip was used, but you could play 4 green chips without any required call out. Whatever!
No way. Dealers are smarter than you think.
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AceSide, I don’t understand your comment. My dealer friend is very smart, maybe smarter than me. And she advised me to use green chips instead of black to reduce attention from surveillance, and pit bosses. I have met many dealers, some smarter than others, but I always assume a dealer is intelligent, until they prove me otherwise. Even then, I am still polite and respectful.
There were experienced dealers. They told me to my face that I was counting. There were inexperienced dealers, not noticing what was going on. If you start to win, all of them will be alert.
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