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Thread: How Would You Play This Promotion

  1. #14


    1 out of 1 members found this post helpful. Did you find this post helpful? Yes | No
    If that's the case, find another high odds bet. Roulette?

    You are not looking for long-term EV. This is a one shot deal where you're looking to hit a longshot, then "leave." It's like playing a BJ tournament vs regular BJ. Totally different strategy.

    A related example - I had a $1K loss rebate for a new card signup at a Vegas casino (Palms, I think, but maybe not. It was about 10 years ago.) I found a $100 slot machine. On my third spin, I hit a 5K jackpot. Play over. No loss rebate.

  2. #15


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    I chickened out and just bet the pass line on the rebate. Even then I didn't play it as planned. My plan was to split the bet into two $100 bets, but I lost the first bet and then bet $200 on the next bet with a potential loss on the promotion. I won the $200 bet and then quit a $100 ahead.

    I noticed DraftKings craps pays 33:1 on box cars not 30:1. I played in demo mode and it took 19 times to roll a 12.

  3. #16


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    Quote Originally Posted by Midwest Player View Post
    I chickened out and just bet the pass line on the rebate. Even then I didn't play it as planned. My plan was to split the bet into two $100 bets, but I lost the first bet and then bet $200 on the next bet with a potential loss on the promotion. I won the $200 bet and then quit a $100 ahead.

    I noticed DraftKings craps pays 33:1 on box cars not 30:1. I played in demo mode and it took 19 times to roll a 12.
    You were lucky. Should take 25 rolls.

    Don

  4. #17


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    Quote Originally Posted by DSchles View Post
    You were lucky. Should take 25 rolls.

    Don
    It appears you used the shortcut calculation of 36xLn2=25; however, if we consider the probability=1/36, wouldn’t the average number of rolls needed for a “snake eye” to occur be 1/probability=36?

    Why is there a discrepancy between these two calculations?

  5. #18


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    Quote Originally Posted by aceside View Post
    Why is there a discrepancy between these two calculations?
    36 is the mean; 25 is the median. If you were making an over/under number for how long it would take to roll 6-6, the proper number would be 25. If you were getting paid $1 for how long it would take to roll 6-6, and you had to pay for that privilege, the right price would be $36. Do you understand the difference?

    Don

  6. #19


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    Quote Originally Posted by DSchles View Post
    36 is the mean; 25 is the median. If you were making an over/under number for how long it would take to roll 6-6, the proper number would be 25. If you were getting paid $1 for how long it would take to roll 6-6, and you had to pay for that privilege, the right price would be $36. Do you understand the difference?

    Don
    Let me do some exercise to understand this.
    If we bet on taking 18 rolls to get a 6-6, then the success probability=1-(35/36)^18=0.398, and thus the payout=(0.5/0.398):1= 1.26:1.
    If we bet on taking 25 rolls to get a 6-6, then the success probability=1-(35/36)^25=0.5, and thus the payout=0.5/0.5= 1:1.
    If we bet on taking 36 rolls to get a 6-6, then the success probability=1-(35/36)^36=0.637, and thus the payout=(0.5/0.637):1= 0.78:1.
    If we bet on taking 72 rolls to get a 6-6, then the success probability=1-(35/36)^72=0.868, and thus the payout=(0.5/0.868):1= 0.58:1.

    Are the odds I made correct?

  7. #20


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    Quote Originally Posted by aceside View Post
    Let me do some exercise to understand this.
    If we bet on taking 18 rolls to get a 6-6, then the success probability=1-(35/36)^18=0.398, and thus the payout=(0.5/0.398):1= 1.26:1.
    If we bet on taking 25 rolls to get a 6-6, then the success probability=1-(35/36)^25=0.5, and thus the payout=0.5/0.5= 1:1.
    If we bet on taking 36 rolls to get a 6-6, then the success probability=1-(35/36)^36=0.637, and thus the payout=(0.5/0.637):1= 0.78:1.
    If we bet on taking 72 rolls to get a 6-6, then the success probability=1-(35/36)^72=0.868, and thus the payout=(0.5/0.868):1= 0.58:1.

    Are the odds I made correct?
    Yes. But no need to do a million examples. Once you know the math and the general principle, then you know it for any number of rolls.

    Don

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