Hi,

According to this post, one should 'resize' the bet to an 'optimal point' to account for overhead cost (travelling cost etc):

http://bj21.com/bj_reference/pages/o...skofruin.shtml



I also read a long time ago somewhere else the derivation of that final conclusion (the pinkish orange box in that webpage). It involves some basic calculus and nothing fancy, but I have no idea where to find it now.


Anyway, my question is (hopefully Norm you'll see this), which way should I carry this out with cvcx? (1) or (2)?
(1) ...simplstic but most likely wrong?
Ignore overhead cost at first. Obtain the cvcx optimal ramp for my bankroll, playing style, desired spread and RoR level, and rules where I play. I will get an hourly ev. To take into account the overhead cost, just multiply the entire ramp by a factor such that the hourly ev becomes 2*overhead-cost.

(2) While using cvcx, choose that ramp to match the hourly ev to equal to 2*overhead-cost. This might give an RoR not as desired, but there's still the spread size to fudge with so some flexibility still remains.



Thanks.