I normally play 1 hand in -EV counts and 2 hands in +EV counts, with the exception of playing 1H regardless if there's not a spot open next to me or I'm the only player.
The standard "conversion" from optimal 1H bet to optimal 2H bet, in BJA3 I think, is you multiply your 1H bet by .73 and bet that amount on each of two spots.
My betting scheme is therefore based on 2 hands in + counts and when I play 1 hand in a + count, I add about 50% to the amount that'd I would have bet on each of 2 spots. For example, if my scheme calls for betting 2 x $100 and I'm only playing 1 spot, I would bet 1 x $150 instead.
CVCX seems to be doing this differently, as these screenshots show. Seems that it's using a factor much higher than .73, or calculating it some other way. Assuming CVCX is right, I'm under-betting when playing 1 spot. Can someone clarify the correct way to "convert" my optimal bet from 1 spot to 2 spots?
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