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Thread: The “why” of the floating advantage

  1. #14


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    Quote Originally Posted by ericfarmer View Post
    I'm pretty late to the thread. There are a lot of interesting things to discuss here, and always so little time. Just focusing on item 1 (and item 4 at the end) to start: you're right that it seems like there has been some confusion on this point, in part because I think it's important to clarify under exactly what conditions it's actually true.

    For example, playing strategy matters; expected return is invariant with respect to shoe depth only if the playing strategy does not depend on shoe composition. The following figure compares the expected return for a round played with fixed, basic, total-dependent strategy (in red), and for a round played with Hi-Opt II with full indices (in blue), as a function of number of decks remaining in a 6-deck shoe. (Six decks are not ideal for a discussion of floating advantage, but it's the setup for which I have data readily available.)

    Attachment 3277

    To interpret this plot: start with a fully-shuffled 6-deck shoe, observe, for example, 5 decks' worth of playing, then sit down and play a heads-up round from the remainder. Do this millions of times (i.e., shuffle the shoe, watch 5 decks go by, then play a round), and average the resulting outcomes. For the player utilizing basic *playing* strategy (whether he is counting for the purpose of *betting* or not), the expected return of about -0.48% is no different than it would be from the top of the shoe. For the Hi-Opt II player, expected return does improve (in this case, to about +0.15%), even "on average" over all encountered true counts, as the shoe is depleted.

    The point here is that advantage is only independent of shoe depletion if the playing strategy doesn't depend on the composition of the depleted shoe. For example, even for an otherwise fixed, "basic," total-dependent strategy player, if he is using a count *only* to take insurance, then this independence no longer holds, albeit with a smaller extent of change in EV.

    Also, particularly in discussion of FA where *extremely* depleted shoes are important (unfortunately I only have readily available data to 5/6 pen), we must be precise about exactly "how depleted" the shoe can get and still preserve constant EV for the fixed-strategy player. We can't run out of cards, or we risk the cut-card effect: suppose that instead of watching 5 decks get burned before playing a round, we instead watch, say, 48 heads-up *rounds* get played before we sit down to play, then watch another 48 rounds from another full shoe before playing, rinse and repeat, and average the results. The following figure shows the result.

    Attachment 3278

    The problem is that our "experiment" may fail during some repetitions: for a burn card at 5/6 penetration, some shoes may not even make it past 43-ish rounds. That effective conditioning on a 49th round even *existing* skews the uniformity of the distribution of possible arrangements of cards in the shoe.

    Have to stop for now, but one last comment on item 4: I may misunderstand what's being said here, but I'm not sure I agree with this. The *exact* invariance of fixed-strategy EV should also apply to any linear combination of shoe rank probabilities, of which a true count is an example. A proof of this is here, including mathematically-gory details about what "fixed" strategy means, and what "not running out of cards risking the cut-card effect" means.
    To simplify this, deep shoe penetration greatly increases shoe volatility. I very recently played a reasonably deep shoe, mostly cold where RC shifted between very moderate negative and positive counts. A situation occurred where, to the best of my recollection was a first for me.

    Third last hand was a single unit $25 bet, doubled, winning, bet fully parlayed so that next bet was $100 and doubled again, winning, fully parlayed so that next bet was $400 bet, winning again. This would never happened at the 3.0 mark - such is the power of deep pen.

  2. #15


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    Effect of number of cards remaining

    After the recent posts on floating advantage I went ahead and added a page to my website http://bjstrat.net/effect_numCards.html. Hopefully it will be helpful but if not, c'est la vie.

    k_c

  3. #16
    Random number herder Norm's Avatar
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    IMHO, appears to fall short. Too many assumptions that I find fall into previously expressed arguments. This cannot possibly be settled with combinatoric math, unless you wish to include all combinations of how you got to the last deck remaining, instead of starting with that last deck, with differing numbers of players and differing strategies among them.
    "I don't think outside the box; I think of what I can do with the box." - Henri Matisse

  4. #17
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    How about using the method as in Theory of Blackjack p.109 Appendix to chapter 7 ... ?
    Column C, 13 Cards Left and 39 Cards Left

  5. #18


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    Quote Originally Posted by k_c View Post
    After the recent posts on floating advantage I went ahead and added a page to my website http://bjstrat.net/effect_numCards.html. Hopefully it will be helpful but if not, c'est la vie.

    k_c
    Read the whole thing, k_c. Nice to see you posting here, my friend.

    1. Is there a reason why you make all the traditional positive count tags negative and vice versa? Found that odd.

    2. I'm not understanding 27 subsets with RC zero of 52 cards remaining from 6 decks. Why such a small number?

    3. Both your work and Eric's, above, clearly reiterate that if no count is employed, BS edge cannot possibly change as the shoe is depleted. Yet it took me about a week to disabuse two of our more prominent posters of this silly notion. In a similar vein, I'm still not understanding why people don't accept Griffin's explanation of the origin of the FA, which is clearly enunciated both in his book and mine. I've already given the references.

    If you squeeze a sealed oblong balloon, from which air cannot escape, at either end, it bulges in the middle. Duh! in a closed system, the displaced air has to go somewhere! When using BS across ALL counts and ALL decks, the edge that we had early on in the shoe at the extreme counts is higher than at those same counts later on in the shoe. Griffin explained why: more pushes (presumably of 20-20) at the very high counts and more disastrous (losing) double downs at the very low counts. So, that is squeezing the balloon at both ends. Where, then, does the balloon (read: BS), of necessity, bulge? Well, as we now all well know, at TCs at and in proximity to zero! And since these counts comprise the bulk of ALL counts that we encounter later in the shoe, our overall BS edge AT THOSE COUNTS increases, which is the very definition of the concept of the floating advantage.

    Do we really need another 100 posts on this?

    Thanks for your work, and nice to hear from you again.

    Don

  6. #19


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    Quote Originally Posted by angle_sh00ter View Post
    The obvious question then becomes why is there a marked difference in the average HE at a neutral count between the start of the 6 deck shoe and at say, 1 deck remaining?
    Please stop. Repeating falsehoods doesn't make them true. Please don't ruin another thread on this topic.

  7. #20


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    The obvious question then becomes why is there a marked difference in the average HE at a neutral count between the start of the 6 deck shoe and at say, 1 deck remaining?

    The BS player and the counter will both play the hands identically at a TC of 0 and yet the difference in HE exists.

    There are obviously forces at work independant of playing strategy (assuming count is neutral). For one thing there will be more blackjacks with 1 deck reamining. In fact there will be (on average) slightly more unpaired hands in general with 1 deck reamining. And there will (on average) be a significant increase in paired hands at the start of the 6 deck shoe as compared to (on average) at 1 deck remaining.

  8. #21


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    Quote Originally Posted by Optimus Prime View Post
    Please stop. Repeating falsehoods doesn't make them true. Please don't ruin another thread on this topic.
    What exactly is false about what i said?

  9. #22


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    All of it. The part I quoted is false, therefore the rest that follows is also false. You're ruining another cool thread - please stop. Plus Don may blow a gasket if he reads your post here again - plus you've got a spelling error - I'd recommend deleting it.

  10. #23


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    Quote Originally Posted by Optimus Prime View Post
    All of it. The part I quoted is false, therefore the rest that follows is also false. You're ruining another cool thread - please stop. Plus Don may blow a gasket if he reads your post here again - plus you've got a spelling error - I'd recommend deleting it.
    Lol the part you quoted was a question!

  11. #24
    Random number herder Norm's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by angle_sh00ter View Post
    For one thing there will be more blackjacks with 1 deck reamining. In fact there will be (on average) slightly more unpaired hands in general with 1 deck reamining. And there will (on average) be a significant increase in paired hands at the start of the 6 deck shoe as compared to (on average) at 1 deck remaining.
    Those parts are false.
    "I don't think outside the box; I think of what I can do with the box." - Henri Matisse

  12. #25


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    Quote Originally Posted by Norm View Post
    Those parts are false.
    Ok. Under which conditions?

    Hi Lo RC of 0 with 52 cards remaining from a 6 deck shoe, what would be the expected HE on the next hand assuming only playing composition dependant BS?

  13. #26


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    https://www.blackjackincolor.com/blackjackeffects2.htm

    Im not trying to be stubborn. I would genuinely like to know under what conditions that graphical representation of floating advantage is true? And who better to ask than the author!

    At a TC of zero there is no playing discrepancies, so what am i missing?

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