How does multiple hands change ROR?

**blueman** · 12-29-2017, 01:27 PM

How does ROR change in these 2 scenarios?

(Player edge 5%, SD 1.5, variance 2.0
Bankroll 300k)

(1) Betting 1 hand of $1200 [at 30 HPH]

(2) Betting 6 hands of $200 [at 30 HPH]

How does the ROR and hourly SD change going from 1 hand to 6 hands? (Same $ in action)

**Stealth** · 12-29-2017, 02:05 PM

To calculate RoR, the variance of the game as well as EV is required. Your multi-hand scenario will have considerably lower variance due to co-variance than the one hand version.

**DSchles** · 12-29-2017, 02:51 PM

Originally Posted by blueman

How does ROR change in these 2 scenarios?

(Player edge 5%, SD 1.5, variance 2.0
Bankroll 300k)

(1) Betting 1 hand of $1200 [at 30 HPH]

(2) Betting 6 hands of $200 [at 30 HPH]

How does the ROR and hourly SD change going from 1 hand to 6 hands? (Same $ in action)

Going out for the evening. Will try to answer you later. ROR drops because e.v. remains the same while variance drops. But if s.d. is 1.5, variance can't be 2.0. It has to be the square, which is 2.25. Then, you need the covariance among the six hands. Later!

Don

**blueman** · 12-29-2017, 05:40 PM

Originally Posted by DSchles

Going out for the evening. Will try to answer you later. ROR drops because e.v. remains the same while variance drops. But if s.d. is 1.5, variance can't be 2.0. It has to be the square, which is 2.25. Then, you need the covariance among the six hands. Later!

Don

Ok yeah i meant 2.25. How do i figure out covariance?

**DSchles** · 12-30-2017, 02:23 PM

Originally Posted by blueman

How does ROR change in these 2 scenarios?

(Player edge 5%, SD 1.5, variance 2.0
Bankroll 300k)

(1) Betting 1 hand of $1200 [at 30 HPH]

(2) Betting 6 hands of $200 [at 30 HPH]

How does the ROR and hourly SD change going from 1 hand to 6 hands? (Same $ in action)

In retrospect, this question makes little sense to me. If your edge is 5% per hand and you flat bet (how does that happen?), and your s.d. is 1.15 times the per-hand bet, and you have 250 units of bank, your ROR is zero. What am I missing??

Don

**blueman** · 12-30-2017, 07:18 PM

Originally Posted by DSchles

In retrospect, this question makes little sense to me. If your edge is 5% per hand and you flat bet (how does that happen?), and your s.d. is 1.15 times the per-hand bet, and you have 250 units of bank, your ROR is zero. What am I missing??

Don

Ror is 0? What about 100k bank? This isn't a blackjack game

**DSchles** · 12-30-2017, 08:58 PM

So s.d. is 1.5, variance is 2.25, edge is 5% per hand, you're flat betting $1,200 per hand, and your bank is $100,000?

ROR is 2.16%. With $300k bank, ROR = zero. I can't answer the six-hand question because you're now telling me that the game isn't blackjack, so I have no idea what the covariance is.

It would be helpful, when you ask a non-blackjack question, that you stipulate that the game has nothing to do with blackjack!!

Don

**blueman** · 12-31-2017, 08:47 PM

Originally Posted by DSchles

So s.d. is 1.5, variance is 2.25, edge is 5% per hand, you're flat betting $1,200 per hand, and your bank is $100,000?

ROR is 2.16%. With $300k bank, ROR = zero. I can't answer the six-hand question because you're now telling me that the game isn't blackjack, so I have no idea what the covariance is.

It would be helpful, when you ask a non-blackjack question, that you stipulate that the game has nothing to do with blackjack!!

Don

Im just trying to not give the game away. How do i figure out covariance?