Spreading from one to two hands and back

[BetWise21]

I would like to understand why a player would spread from one hand to two hands and when they would drop back to one hand and why. Without regard to heat, but optimal play, is it true count, penetration, number of players ? I am sure there is no exact answer so I and looking for other players opinions and ideas that would create EV, without considering the pit or eye in the sky.

[SpikeBJ]

Spreading from one to two hands and back

My mother in-law buys 2 identical lottery tickets. She wants to ensure she gets 2/3 if there was another winner.

[refinery]

My mother in-law buys 2 identical lottery tickets. She wants to ensure she gets 2/3 if there was another winner.

Leaving aside judgement about playing the lottery, that's a great AP move. (Provided it actually splits like that. I've never played the lottery.)

[Freightman]

My mother in-law buys 2 identical lottery tickets. She wants to ensure she gets 2/3 if there was another winner.

Since her EV on one is so bad, why doesn't she do spread her wings, get 2 numbers, as long as she buys 2.

[SpikeBJ]

Since her EV on one is so bad, why doesn't she do spread her wings, get 2 numbers, as long as she buys 2.

She is terrible in math and thinks statistics is voodoo. I was actually answering the OPs question, just using a goofy example.

[Freightman]

She is terrible in math and thinks statistics is voodoo. I was actually answering the OPs question, just using a goofy example.

Concept was good, the lottery examp,e bad
Don, p,ease Norte grammatical errors. Must keep up appearances

[DSchles]

"Concept was good, the lottery examp,e bad
Don, p,ease Norte grammatical errors. Must keep up appearances"

Don't you think this is wearing a little thin by now? More interesting would be an actual post in which everything is written correctly.

Don

[ZeeBabar]

Basically, you put out the least amount you can get away with in negative counts so one hand of one minimum bet is the least amount you can put down.
You play two hands to get more money out without looking like you have a huge spread. For example, dealer is required to call out checks play if you have a hand of $100 on a $10 minimum table. You could place 2 hands of $90 out.
Another is if the deck is Ace rich. You have 2 hands out versus a dealers one hand and chance of BJ. are greater for you.

[Joe Mama]

You have 2 hands out versus a dealers one hand and chance of BJ. are greater for you.

I believe this is balanced by the dealer BJ wiping out 2 hands. You are twice as likely to get a BJ, but also as likely to take 2 losses to a dealer BJ vs one hand loss. Spreading to 2 hands is most beneficial if you are coming into the last deal of a positive shoe to get a hand that would otherwise have been shuffled up. Also beneficial at a positive count when there are other players at the table.

[SpikeBJ]

Also beneficial at a positive count when there are other players at the table.

Hence my mother in-law comments.

[Gronbog]

Don wrote about this in BJA3. I'm surprised he didn't mention that in his earlier post.

[NB10]

I would like to understand why a player would spread from one hand to two hands and when they would drop back to one hand and why. Without regard to heat, but optimal play, is it true count, penetration, number of players ? I am sure there is no exact answer so I and looking for other players opinions and ideas that would create EV, without considering the pit or eye in the sky.

I believe Blackjack Attack recommends that at a high TC (+5) you should play one hand if you are playing heads up, and two hands, each at ~73% of max bet, for all other numbers of players at the table. Someone correct me if I have misinterpreted this..

[ZeeBabar]

I believe this is balanced by the dealer BJ wiping out 2 hands. You are twice as likely to get a BJ, but also as likely to take 2 losses to a dealer BJ vs one hand loss. Spreading to 2 hands is most beneficial if you are coming into the last deal of a positive shoe to get a hand that would otherwise have been shuffled up. Also beneficial at a positive count when there are other players at the table.

Lets assume one time you get a bj, the dealer does not and the next time you get BJ on both hands and dealer does not and finally, dealter gets BJ, you get both bets wiped out, would you not be winning? When you alternate BJ with the dealer (he wins one, you win another), you always win more because you get paid 3:2, when dealer gets BJ, he does not.