For the past few years, I've been writing a BJ simulation program (as a hobby) and I'm currently trying to improve my algorithm by making it simpler and easier to understand. I'd like to ask for some help with one particular aspect of the algorithm and I'd like to do that by giving you one specific set of circumstances and then asking what the dealer needs to do in those circumstances.
Please allow me to give you a specific example that involves Surrender (although similar situations arise with the dealer peeking and not peeking). We can talk about peeking later if anyone feels the need.
Suppose you are playing in a casino that has very loose rules for splitting and doubling. You can split and resplit any number of times and you can double on most any hand at all. Suppose you are the only player at a $10 table that is using an 8-deck shoe. Now suppose the first thing that happens after the shoe is shuffled is that you are dealt a pair of 8s and the dealer is showing an up card valued at 10.
Now suppose that you split your 8s and keep on re-splitting until you have been dealt all 32 of the 8s from the shoe. So, you would then have 32 split-hands. We'll ignore the issue of doubling for now. But it may come up further on in this example. This means that instead of wagering the original $10, you have now wagered a total of $320. I hope I've done my math correctly.
Now, here is the question: If the dealer's bottom card is a 6, the dealer would have a total of 16. The dealer would normally hit that 16 hand. But, since all the split-hands have been surrendered, does the dealer need to do anything more? Does the dealer need to hit that 16 hand? Or can the dealer just proceed to the next round?
Under similar circumstances, what if one player does not surrender every one of their split-hands? Suppose just one player decides to stand on just one split-hand. Would the dealer then be compelled to finish processing their hand? By "processing" I mean the dealer would hit their hand when the rules call for it to be hit.
Oh my gosh! It seems like often, when I post a question in this forum, the answer soon comes to me after I make the post.
This particular question is probably similar to asking when only one player is playing at a table and that player busts their hand, does the dealer need to finish processing their hand? Meaning, is it possible the player may tie the dealer if the dealer then goes bust as well? Or can the dealer just take the player's wager and forget about doing anything further with their own hand?
I guess it's also similar to asking if there are several players at the table and they all go bust on all of their hands, does the dealer automatically win all the wagers? Or does the dealer have to finish playing their own hand and take the chance of busting as well?
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