For the life of me, I can't figure this one out.......The casino agreed to turn the cards as well as his other requests. IAMAL, but it seems fairly clear cut -- casino agrees to a deal and then cries foul. As I understand it, the Borgata dealt the game which "broke the rules of gambling"....I can only assume dealing such a game must be against the law/regulations/statutes/etc.
Unfortunately, it's cases like this that start to set a precedence leaning towards "the casino must have the advantage" or "a player must not attempt to gain advantage over the house."
Interesting how "Ivey broke the rules of gambling", but not convicted of fraud nor cheating. To me, this is similar to the asset-forfeiture thing where the cops charge the money with a crime, not the person. IE: Nothing needs to be proven.
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