I am still trying to wrap my head around the concept of following the CVCX suggested optimal bet ramp for a typical dog of a double deck game that I play at my local stores. H17, DOA, DAS, 1 card only on split Aces, No Surrender. 55% to 55%+ pen; dealer dependent. My question is, is this ramp really essentially the mathematically optimal way to deploy our funds for a particular game? For hi-lo for example, does TC1 and TC2 justify increases of 2 units followed by 5 unites respectively. The advantages at those counts seem too small to risk more capital at those amounts and I am wondering if I should wait for a slightly bigger advantage before increasing to those amounts. I am wondering if this would lower overall expected session variance. Also regarding the CVCX suggested max bet out as early as TC 3, TC 4, and onward. Am I getting enough value for max betting at TC3 is my question rather than just waiting until TC4.
I am trying to understand this before I go and dogmatically follow the recommended ramp. I am grateful for feedback and I thank you beforehand.

Sincerely,
Wino