Hey guys, I don't want to come across as an idiot or anything but I had a random thought the other day about penetration that I'm sure is incorrect somehow but I'd like if someone could explain why.
Anyway, the thought process is as follows: if you apply penetration, for simplicity let's say we cut the deck in half, the count of each side could be anything, that is the max would be all the 10s or low cards and some neutrals in one half. More often though youd think statistically with a good shuffle, with a machine for example, that the count of each would be around 0. Slice it an infinite number of times, and the distribution would seem to favor that each side gets a count of 0. Could you then use that logic to suggest that in the long run, the pen wouldn't make a difference because the expected count of what is removed would approach 0? I assume you can't because every expert says pen is really important, but anyone care to explain?
Thanks guys
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