When does NO become statistically relevant?
~Pac
Hm, i guess im asking at what point N0 over comes variance (1-4SDs)
Also, how does one calculate there N0 for multiple games? I figure N0 is easier to approximate based on hrs instead of hands so would I just keep track of hours for different games in respect to there individual N0s? Or am i just over thinking it in that its not to important to keep track of as much as it is to know and avoid games with enormous N0s?
~Pac
The definition of N0 is the number of rounds it takes for your EV to exceed one standard deviation of results. If you play multiple games with various N0's you can just weight the N0 by rounds played provided you are using essentially the same betting unit for all of the games. Two hours played at a game with an N0 of 40,000 is the same as one hour played at a game with an N0 of 20,000 rounds. Just weight your N0 by the hours played at that N0. Needless to say, you can see the power of playing better games, you get into the long run much faster. That said, time at the tables kills casinos, if you've got a place with a bad game but they'll let you play 8 hours a day for weeks at a time an N0 of 40,000 rounds might be acceptable.
"Hm, i guess im asking at what point N0 over comes variance (1-4SDs)"
No, you're not asking that either, because N0 IS the point where e.v. overcomes not variance, but one standard deviation. That is its definition.
"Also, how does one calculate there N0 for multiple games?"
Maybe it would help you to understand that N0 is simply the reciprocal of SCORE, multiplied by one million.
Don
[QUOTE=DSchles;124787]
No, you're not asking that either, because N0 IS the point where e.v. overcomes not variance, but one standard deviation. That is its definition.
One more try haha.
If 1N0 = 1SD, is that consistant with 2 or 3SDs? (2N0 = 2SD?)
Also thanks BP. That makes sense.
~Pac
http://www.bjmath.com/bjmath/Betsize/theory.htmOriginally Posted by ZenKinG
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