In my studies of Blackjack, I have come across many thoughts on bet ramping. This site, BJA3, the 2% rule (Kelly), and other publications have all guided my thoughts on betting. While I don?t have simulation software, and I?m sure this can be answered easily there, I am looking for some confirmation of some ideas.

If I lay out the following scenario as the game to be played: play all, a 300 unit trip bankroll to start (it has grown to 350 since the start of 2005) a 40 unit session bankroll, at DD, DAS, s17, 60-65% pen, with one-on-one play.

The 2% rule (Kelly) says anything more than a 6 unit wager is over betting the bankroll, so I have tried to confine myself to a 1-6 spread as follows: 1 unit with any negative count, 2 units at 0 up to +2, 3 at +2 (floored), 4 at +3, 5 at +4, and 6 at +5 TC and above. My first question is: is this considered a 1-6 spread or a 1-3 spread (ignoring the negative counts of 1 unit and starting the spread at 2 units up to 6 units or 3 to 1)?

Because I have read enough to see that spread is a powerful tool, I am tempted to overbet when the count is more than +5 (I recently ran into a DD shoe with a double digit positive TC for the last three deals before the cut card emerged). How much extra risk is there when you get over that 6 unit (7 unit now with a 350 unit bankroll) threshold? Can you minimize that risk by playing two hands at 4 units each (overbetting or good since it is less than the 75% of your max bet (6 units) that BJA3 outlines to minimize risk with 2 hands)?

That is it for now, but I?m sure I?m going to have many more questions as we pursue this line of questioning. Thanks.