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Alexxx: optimal bet
according to wikipedia,
Kelly bet is: f* =(bp-q)/b
where
f* is the fraction of the current bankroll to wager;
b is the net odds received on the wager (i.e. if the odds are 2-to-1 ("even money") then the value of b is 1) ;
p is the probability of winning;
q is the probability of losing, which is 1 − p.
but, some people say,
optimal bet = bankroll x EV/Var
which is correct?
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