So when one has a high positive count, he doesn't have a greater probability of winning? It's still the .42 win, .49 lose, & .09 push regardless of a high positive count? A large number of 10's & aces coming doesn't mean one will win more hands: more doubles and more blackjacks? More as in more often? Aren't many of the split hands (except 9's) hampered by a large number of 10's to be played? One wants the deuce, trey, four, & sometimes 5's to come with the about the same frequency as 10's. I know logic is sometimes the fool's companion but something doesn't seem quite right here. I'm fairly new to advantage play and need an explanation. Thanks.

> I say good job Newtobj. It's great when you
> have those days. I had a day like that and
> then the next day....ummm....I'd rather not
> discuss that one. I believe I did learn more
> on the the bad day, though.

> Professionals, please answer this. Using
> CVCX, I did a sim of backcounting at +1 TC
> with a spread of 1 to 3 and the STD DEV was
> 9 . That's it, 9 !!!! The standard deviation
> for playing all was about 46. Doesn't this
> mean something.

> Also, Newtobj, take my advice, don't put too
> much money out at a TC +1. Your advantage is
> only about .011 % at that point. Wait until
> about +2 to really get going. That is what I
> learned on that bad day. Also, I wouldn't
> flat bet when wonging. Some people advise
> that but you really increase your gains when
> you spread a little upon wonging just like
> if you were playing all.