> To gain such an advantage, wouldn't the
> house need to know exactly how many hands
> will be played on each round for the
> upcoming shoe?

I don't think so.

> For example, if the house
> knew that only one box would be played, then
> I understand how the cards could be stacked:
> the player gets 19, the house 20, etc. But
> what happens if the player adds another box,
> or another player joins the table, or a
> player sits out? How can the house know in
> advance how to order the cards?

To get a 100% advantage, the house would have to know everything in advance. I'm not talking about that. I'm talking about a few tenths of one percent more or less. You are explaining one difficulty for the programmer who wants to create a bias in a shuffle machine. That's far from a proof that the difficulty is insurmountable.

I've said enough. Like I say, the proof should be on their side.

ETF