fatcat519: Spread Question

[fatcat519]

I asked this in a post below, but it was at the end and probably didn't get noticed:

Here's another question that's been on my mind.
Spreading from 1 to 2x6, for example, looks like a 1 to 12 spread, but I've been told that it isn't really that much. Can you tell me how to calculate the equivalent one hand spread if it really is different?

Thanks again.

[Don Schlesinger]

> I asked this in a post below, but it was at the end
> and probably didn't get noticed:

> Here's another question that's been on my mind.
> Spreading from 1 to 2x6, for example, looks like a 1
> to 12 spread, but I've been told that it isn't really
> that much.

First, we'd need to know when you go to 2 x 6, instead of one hand of 12, because the frequency plays an obvious role in the difference in win rate. Next, it matters how many people are at the table, because, playing two hands alone is different from playing two hands with, say, three or four other players, because the card-eating proportion changes.

> Can you tell me how to calculate the
> equivalent one hand spread if it really is different?

See above. It is different, but by how much depends on a number of variables, which you haven't specified. In general, if you were going to bet one hand of 12 at a certain point, but then bet two hands of 6, instead, your hourly win would drop a little (depends on the above), but your s.d. would also drop.

Don