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Multiple spots
If I play 1 spot n rounds (suppose n big enough) I get N hands, being N>n due to splits. If I play, let's say 3 spots, the number of hands played will be about 3N? Is it linear?
Thanks,
BJFan
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Yes, what you just said (pure # of hands played) would be linear. Presumably you would have the same proportion of splits/etc... for each of the three hands as only one hand. That said, it's not the same as 3N for counting or simulating purposes because you go up against a single dealer hand, not three like you would have in the 1 spot senario. I'd assume the EV remains the same as 3N, but variance would be different (lower for 3 spots vs. 1 spot x 3). Someone please correct me if I'm not right here.
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I totally agree with you, this is what I thought. You're right with the variance too because the covariance acts here.
I'd like to hear another answer to confirm this topic.
Thanks.
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