What is the dealer final total(17,18....26 and BJ) distribution for below scenarios

[James989]

1) 8 deck, S17
2) 8 deck, H17
3) 6 deck, S17
4) 6 deck, H17

17 : a%

18 : b%

.
.
.
.
26 : j%

BJ : k%

Suppose the dealer still draws card(s) even though all the players hand burst

[aceside]

Are you talking about the US rule where a dealer peeks for blackjack?

[James989]

Are you talking about the US rule where a dealer peeks for blackjack?

Suppose the dealer still draws card(s) even though all the players hand burst, so it does not matter ?

[aceside]

Yes, it should matter. I believe your mind is on Australian rules.

[James989]

Yes, it should matter. I believe your mind is on Australian rules.

I think it does not matter because dealer will still draw cards even though all the players hand burst.

Any info for those four cases ?

[aceside]

Let me think about this. I don’t have any numbers for these four cases but I can find them for the infinite deck case.

[aceside]

The dealer peeking for blackjack should matter because relatively less cards will be used for dealing out a round in a shoe game. It’s more efficient for the BJ business too. That’s why Americans invented the hole card peeker.

For example, when dealer has a blackjack, player may not draw any more cards in US, but may in England.

[James989]

The dealer peeking for blackjack should matter because relatively less cards will be used for dealing out a round in a shoe game. It’s more efficient for the BJ business too. That’s why Americans invented the hole card peeker.

For example, when dealer has a blackjack, player may not draw any more cards in US, but may in England.

Efficiency does not change the dealer's final total distribution, it only effect how fast you can play the game.

Player hit cards before or after dealer reveals her hole card does not effect dealer final total. So peek or no peek does not change the dealer final total, therefore will not change the final total distribution, agree ?

[aceside]

Player uses a different batch of cards than dealer does, so this factor will change the final distribution, so I disagree.

It’s asymmetric.

[James989]

Player uses a different batch of cards than dealer does, so this factor will change the final distribution, so I disagree.

It’s asymmetric.

All cards uses by player and dealer are randomly pick, so there is no such thing as "Player uses a different batch of cards than dealer does"

What is the dealer's final total distribution for this two cases ?

1) 8 deck, S17, Peek
2) 8 deck, S17, No Peek

[aceside]

I haven’t thought through all these but noticed a no helpful comment. This indicates you might be right. I need to look at the spreadsheets to see if there is any difference between peek and no peek situations. They are treated very differently when calculating their EVs.

[James989]

Anyone can help to verify my numbers ?

8 deck, S17.

DEALER FINAL TOTAL ----------------%

17 14.521 18 13.928 19 13.364 20 17.976 21 7.290 22 7.259 23 6.485 24 5.667 25 4.827 26 3.937 BJ 4.746

[aceside]

I only have these numbers for an infinite deck and S-17:

Dealer final hand total: probability in %
17: 14.5126
18: 13.9497
19: 13.3464
20: 18.0252
non-Blackjack 21: 7.2731
Bust: 28.1593
Blackjack: 4.7337