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Hello,

I am tiring to figure out what my advantage has been since I started plying. I have run the simulations in CVCX and play from -1 on up. How is this calculated?

Thanks....

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Could you clarify? Are you talking about experienced advantage or what advantage you are playing at going forward?

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BJA.jpg

I have been using the attached file. How is the advantaged I played with calculated? and going forward? Is it the same?

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In custom bets column, put 0 in -1 and below space. Low hands per hour is either 1 or 2 other players coupled with not playing -1 and below. Your revised win rates will be the very last row. DI of 4.95 translates to SCORE of 24.75 (DI^2) on optimal row, but will increase under custom. A pretty shitty game improved by wonging and good penetration. Quick off the cuff house edge of .63 to .67. New Advantage will be Custom average bet x 80 hands per hour divided by custom win per hour. Consider half true counts to improve your results. Slight change in ramps will occur. Try to find better rules. Also, sim heads up 200 hands per hour without wonging. Curious how that comes out.

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I don't understand your answer. He asked a simple question: Given the chart, what was the advantage he played with? The answer, %W/L, in the bottom left, is 0.91%. Why give such a complicated response to such a simple question? Why over-complicate things unnecessarily?

Nor does your answer address how one arrives at 0.91%, if the OP really wants to know the details. That answer is to multiply, row by row, each count frequency by the advantage (Win/Loss) of that count by the size of the bet for that count, and sum vertically all of those products.

Don

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Originally Posted by DSchles
I don't understand your answer. He asked a simple question: Given the chart, what was the advantage he played with? The answer, %W/L, in the bottom left, is 0.91%. Why give such a complicated response to such a simple question? Why over-complicate things unnecessarily?

Nor does your answer address how one arrives at 0.91%, if the OP really wants to know the details. That answer is to multiply, row by row, each count frequency by the advantage (Win/Loss) of that count by the size of the bet for that count, and sum vertically all of those products.

Don

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Thanks for the information.

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Advantage.jpgI am not sure why the calculations are not coming out as expected. Backcount 0.jpgBackcount 1.jpg

I am confused why the count frequency always equal 100%. How does the back counting percentage play into the calculation? I think that the back count percentage is what percentage of counts are played and not 100%. I also tried to multiply the back count percentage with the count frequency by the advantage (Win/Loss) of that count by the size of the bet for that count (Thanks Don) and the numbers do not come out. Did I run the simulation incorrectly?

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The count frequency is the frequency of played counts. This is required for all other calculations.

The hands you don't play only affect your hourly win rates. You must make that change yourself in the Rounds/Hour field as CVCX has no idea how long it takes you to find a new game if you are wonging. That is highly dependent on the casino, the crowd conditions, the number of open tables, the number of nearby casinos, and the casino tolerance of players that jump from table to table -- as well as camouflage.

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Originally Posted by Blackjackcounter
Advantage.jpgI am not sure why the calculations are not coming out as expected. Backcount 0.jpgBackcount 1.jpg

I am confused why the count frequency always equal 100%. How does the back counting percentage play into the calculation? I think that the back count percentage is what percentage of counts are played and not 100%. I also tried to multiply the back count percentage with the count frequency by the advantage (Win/Loss) of that count by the size of the bet for that count (Thanks Don) and the numbers do not come out. Did I run the simulation incorrectly?
When you do the multiplications and summing I described, at the end, you need to divide by the sum of the frequencies for the counts you play, and not by 100. In your example above, if you're back-counting, why do you show a one-unit wager for the count of zero, where you don't have the edge? You shouldn't be playing then. The 54.4% refers to the sum of the frequencies of the counts of +1 and higher.

Don

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