Assume 40 hands of a 6 deck, Strip rules shoe.

If for 37 of the 40 hands I have a -$1.85 E.V. and a 2 standard deviation expected outcome of about (+$140 to -$136) due to flat betting $10 at a -.5% player advantage. (By the way, Don, thank you - page 16 of my "Blackjack Attack" is well worn due to me referencing it so much.),

And, for the remaining 3 hands (hand #4, hand # 22, hand #26), assume I have a 5% player advantage (not as a result of card counting), and I bet $20 on each of the 3 hands (EV of $3.00, or $60 x .05), yielding a 2 standard deviation range of about (+$72 to -$66).

To arrive at my overall expected 2 standard deviation range, can I combine (add) these two sets of 2 standard ranges and get (+$212 to -$202)? Or, do I need to compute an Average Advantage, as Don talks about in "Blackjack Attack" (3rd edition)? Or will both of these methods yield the same answer?

Thank you in advance!!

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