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Thread: Multiple hands bet size to maximizing bankroll growth

  1. #1


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    Multiple hands bet size to maximizing bankroll growth

    Don/other experts,

    If optimal 1-hand bet size at certain count is B,
    under same count, what is the optimum bet size of each hand in order to maximizing bankroll growth if spread to :-

    1) 2 hands - each hand bet = ?
    2) 3 hands - each hand bet = 2B/3 =0.67B. Please give your advice if it is incorrect.
    3) 4 hands - each hand bet = ?
    4) 5 hands - each hand bet = ?
    5) 6 hands - each hand bet = ?

    Thanks in advance.

    James

  2. #2


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    This information first appeared in Wong's Professional Blackjack. The page numbers change, because of different editions, but I believe I have the latest edition, and it can be found on page 204. If you don't have the book, just let me know.

    The table is confusing to read, however, because the numbers aren't provided in the format we'd like. The one-hand optimal bet, as a percentage of your advantage, is 0.76, and not 1.00, or 100%, because it divides by the variance (in this case, 1.316). So, to get the answers you're looking for in your chart, above, you need to take each of the numbers in the last column and divide them by 0.76, to get what percentage of the one-hand bet you should bet on each of x hands.

    And no, your 2B/3 is definitely not correct.

    Don

  3. #3


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    So the correct percentages are (for DAS variance of 1.316):

    1 hand : 0.76 / 0.76 = 1.00
    2 hands: 0.56 / 0.76 = 0.74
    3 hands: 0.44 / 0.76 = 0.58
    4 hands: 0.36 / 0.76 = 0.47
    5 hands: 0.31 / 0.76 = 0.41
    6 hands: 0.27 / 0.76 = 0.36
    7 hands: 0.24 / 0.76 = 0.32

    For example, it is possible to bet 74 percent (about 3/4 of a single hand wager) on each of two spots and thus betting about 150 percent altogether at the same risk (e.g. bet two times 15 dollars = 30 dollars altogether instead of 20 dollars on one hand). Is this correct?
    Last edited by PinkChip; 07-01-2020 at 09:48 AM.

  4. #4


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    Quote Originally Posted by PinkChip View Post
    So the correct percentages are (for DAS variance of 1.316):

    1 hand : 0.76 / 0.76 = 1.00
    2 hands: 0.56 / 0.76 = 0.74
    3 hands: 0.44 / 0.76 = 0.58
    4 hands: 0.36 / 0.76 = 0.47
    5 hands: 0.31 / 0.76 = 0.41
    6 hands: 0.27 / 0.76 = 0.36
    7 hands: 0.24 / 0.76 = 0.32

    For example, it is possible to bet 74 percent (about 3/4 of a single hand wager) on each of two spots and thus betting about 150 percent altogether at the same risk (e.g. bet two times 15 dollars = 30 dollars altogether instead of 20 dollars on one hand). Is this correct?

    Yes, it's all correct.

    Don

  5. #5


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    Thanks, Don!

  6. #6


    1 out of 1 members found this post helpful. Did you find this post helpful? Yes | No
    My rule of thumb in live game:

    Bet 1.5 time your optimal one hand bet divided on two spots.
    Bet 2 times your optimal one hand bet divided on any number of spots from 3 to 7

    Nothing else to remember.
    G Man

  7. #7


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    Quote Originally Posted by G Man View Post
    My rule of thumb in live game:

    Bet 1.5 time your optimal one hand bet divided on two spots.
    Bet 2 times your optimal one hand bet divided on any number of spots from 3 to 7

    Nothing else to remember.
    Good approximation! I was often uncertain on how much to bet when it came to playing several hands simultaneously. This rule of thumb should help.

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