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Thread: What do we mean by "spread" - 1 hand total or 2 hand total?

  1. #1


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    What do we mean by "spread" - 1 hand total or 2 hand total?

    When we talk about our spread, are we talking about the ratio of our low bet to our single-hand high bet or our total we bet on two spots?

    If I'm using a "1-12" spread and playing two hands in good counts, is my top bet 2 x 6 units or 2 x 12 units?

  2. #2


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    Quote Originally Posted by Optimus Prime View Post
    When we talk about our spread, are we talking about the ratio of our low bet to our single-hand high bet or our total we bet on two spots?

    If I'm using a "1-12" spread and playing two hands in good counts, is my top bet 2 x 6 units or 2 x 12 units?
    If you play two hands, you need to factor in the correlation of the two hands, so you need to apply about 20% discount on your spread. In your example, your 2 x 6 top bet is "1 - 9.6" spread. Your 2 x 12 top bet is "1 - 19" spread. Neither is "1 - 12" spread.

  3. #3


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    IMO just be more clear and say "1x1 to 2x12" or w/e it is. Boom -- easy! You know exactly what the spread is, without any guesswork.

    Otherwise, I'd say spreading 1x10 to 2x75 (for example) is a 1-10 spread, because 2x75 is equivalent to 1x100. Spreading from 1x10 to 1x100 is 1-10.
    "Everyone wants to be rich, but nobody wants to work for it." -Ryan Howard [The Office]

  4. #4


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    Quote Originally Posted by dalmatian View Post
    I dont agree with BJGenius007. Is he a genius of blackjack or blow jobs? Probably the latter....

    A spread of 10-2×100 is a 1-20 spread in my opinion.
    You are incorrect.

    A more clear way to do this is to figure out what your single hand spread is and after find the equivalent of that spread if you were playing two hands.


    Assuming that your unit is equal to that 10 dollar bet. A 1-20 spread would be as follows for one hand:

    Minimum bet = $10
    Maximum bet = $200

    The two hand version of that maximum bet going after the same risk would be:

    2 x $150

    And the three hand version would be:

    3 x $100

    Your 2 x $100 would be equal in betting power to a single hand totaling $133.

    Basically what you have there is a 1 to ~13.3 spread.

    This is detailed in many black jack books. Fyi


    As for the OPs question, the equivalent top bet for a one to twelve spread in risk would be:

    2 x 9 units

  5. #5


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    Yeah, I know how to figure the equivalent risks. Just want to understand what's meant when people talk about their spread, especially in the context of what's acceptable to a store. For example, it's normally unwise to have more than a 1-4 "spread" at DD - does that mean 1x1 - 2x2 units or does it mean the risk-equivalent of 1x1 - 2x2 units (which would be about 1x1 - 2x3 units?)

  6. #6


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    Noteworthy is that CVCX uses Dalmation's method - top end of "spread" is the sum of the two hands.

  7. #7


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    Regardless, how does the pit see "spread?" If I spread from 1 x $20 to 2 x $200 do they see that as 1:10 or 1:20?

  8. #8


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    Quote Originally Posted by Optimus Prime View Post
    Regardless, how does the pit see "spread?" If I spread from 1 x $20 to 2 x $200 do they see that as 1:10 or 1:20?
    Quite aggressive though and obvious IMO...

    Sent from my SM-J730F using Tapatalk
    Last edited by ferenc11; 04-21-2019 at 06:06 AM.

  9. #9
    Senior Member Bubbles's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Optimus Prime View Post
    Regardless, how does the pit see "spread?" If I spread from 1 x $20 to 2 x $200 do they see that as 1:10 or 1:20?
    The pit sees it as 1:20.

    Sent from my SM-G955U using Tapatalk

  10. #10


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    Quote Originally Posted by Bubbles View Post
    The pit sees it as 1:20.

    Sent from my SM-G955U using Tapatalk
    Some pit bosses see it as 1 to 20. But some better pit bosses see it as 1 to 16 based on the effectiveness.

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