Perceived spread

[Diogenes]

Assume I split cards, win both, then parlay the the original bets plus the winnings on the very next hand. Would that likely be perceived by the PCs as a 1-4 bet jump, or be viewed as 1-2 bet jump? I suspect that the parley would seem less suspicious, regardless of sweatiness, than jumping immediately from 1 unit to 4. Or il absurbum reductio, if one splits 4 times, doubles 2 hands and all win, would it be safe to let it all ride on the next hand(1-12 effective spread). That actually happened to me once, but the count tanked and I couldn't test my hypothesis.

Diogenes

"O that I could relieve my hunger, simply by rubbing my belly."

[Freightman]

Assume I split cards, win both, then parlay the the original bets plus the winnings on the very next hand. Would that likely be perceived by the PCs as a 1-4 bet jump, or be viewed as 1-2 bet jump? I suspect that the parley would seem less suspicious, regardless of sweatiness, than jumping immediately from 1 unit to 4. Or il absurbum reductio, if one splits 4 times, doubles 2 hands and all win, would it be safe to let it all ride on the next hand(1-12 effective spread). That actually happened to me once, but the count tanked and I couldn't test my hypothesis.

Diogenes

"O that I could relieve my hunger, simply by rubbing my belly."

Pretty much the same scenario as doubling, then parlaying everything in the circle. It's something I really like doing at a fairly marginal positive, as in scenario 1. It prepares easily for another raise n a following round, given proper circumstance.

Scenario 2 is also a possibie in a higher count. I would absolutely do it, and have, given the right circumstance.

[JamesonDetroit]

I love when moments like this happen, and absolutely take advantage as you outline. Another thing you can do after a successful split is leave the hands split as such and play two hands. Might be more excusable/less suspicious than stacking all four on one hand suddenly and seems ploppy-esque enough.

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