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nycfudu: dumb question
What is N0?
In BJRM it says "Number of hand required to overcome 1 SD"
So what is 1 SD, is it SD/100 or SD/hand?
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Sun Runner: Re: dumb question
Oooo, let me try.
> What is N0?
Established by Brett Harris (as far as I know). It is the commonly accepted measure of 'the long run' and the answer culminates in the theoritical number hours it takes to get there, assuming you are comfortable with one SD of variance.
> In BJRM it says "Number of hand required to overcome 1 SD"
Actually.. "the number of hands for your EV to overcome one SD of variance."
The formula: 'N0' is (Variance divided by EV)^2.
Therefore, if variance is 4.00 units per hand and the win rate is 3.0 units per 100 hands, then N0 equals ((4.00*100)/3.0)^2 ... or 17,777 hands ... or 178 hours to the 'long run'.
If you feel 2 SDs is a more safe estimation, then it would take 712 hours (4 times the 1 SD number.)
What all that tells a non-math geek like me is .. the long run is not as far out there as I first imagined.
Hope that helps (and is accuarte.) I'm operating without a net!!
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Don Schlesinger: Nice try! :-)
> Oooo, let me try.
> Established by Brett Harris (as far as I
> know).
So far, so good.
> It is the commonly accepted measure
> of 'the long run' and the answer culminates
> in the theoretical number of hours it takes to
> get there, assuming you are comfortable with
> one SD of variance.
Good. But, it's "one SD" (standard deviation). Leave out the variance part, which is actually the square of SD.
> Actually.. "the number of hands for
> your EV to overcome one SD of
> variance."
Ditto. The "zero" in N0 (N-zero) comes from the fact that when you play the appropriate number of hands, EV - SD = 0. That is, EV = SD.
> The formula: 'N0' is (Variance divided by
> EV)^2.
No, it's (SD/EV)^2. And both must be expressed on a per-hand basis.
> Therefore, if variance is 4.00 units per
> hand and the win rate is 3.0 units per 100
> hands, then N0 equals ((4.00*100)/3.0)^2 ...
> or 17,777 hands ... or 178 hours to the
> 'long run'.
Almost. Instead of "variance," write "SD." Express the win rate as .03 units per hand. Form the ratio 4.00/.03 and then square that, getting your result of 17,777 hands.
> If you feel 2 SDs is a more safe estimation,
> then it would take 712 hours (4 times the 1
> SD number.)
Correct.
> What all that tells a non-math geek like me
> is .. the long run is not as far out there
> as I first imagined.
For some, it can be an eternity; for others, just a moment. :-)
> Hope that helps (and is accurate.) I'm
> operating without a net!!
An honest attempt!
Don
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Sun Runner: Thanks.
I won't get it wrong again.
But I will stay off this page (except to read and absorb.)
ETFan also caught me zigging when I should have been zagging yesterday.
I need to leave the heavylifting to the smart guys and just continue living off the fruits of ya'lls labor.
Hope nobody minds; don't think I'm not grateful.
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Don Schlesinger: No, please post
> I won't get it wrong again.
> But I will stay off this page (except to
> read and absorb.)
No, please don't. The essence of your post was correct; I just fine-tuned a few details. We welcome your contributions. Please don't be shy (except when airing your views on smoking! :-)).
Don
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Parker: Go for it
If there is one thing I have learned from hosting The Parker Pages, it is that nothing, and I mean nothing, tests your understanding of a particular topic like trying to explain it to someone else.
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Sun Runner: Thanks. It's all good.:) *NM*
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nycfudu: Thank you all for your help. Greatly appreciated. *NM*
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Cacarulo: Re: dumb question
> What is N0?
> In BJRM it says "Number of hand
> required to overcome 1 SD"
> So what is 1 SD, is it SD/100 or SD/hand?
There is also a thread below started by Wolverine that you might want to read.
Sincerely,
Cac
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